AIBE 2020 Previous Year Questions
All 100 questions from AIBE 2020 (All India Bar Examination). Questions are available free. Login to see official answers and detailed explanations.
Cyber Law (IT Act)
Section 66A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in the case of:
An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication – is known as:
Under the Patent Act, which of the following are not patentable?
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre-existing:
Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Art. 19(1)(a) read with Article 19(2) in the case of:
Labour & Industrial Laws
A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of:
According to Factories Act, "child" means:
"Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifyability" - Justice Krishna Iyer. Name the case.
A workman aggrieved by the order of dismissal ... may directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government:
Arbitration & ADR
The UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to construe its provisions. This was held in the case of:
According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in:
Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is mentioned under ——– of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.
The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals:
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title. Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under the Evidence Act?
So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under:
When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. – This is under ————— of the Evidence Act.
Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under:
A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of them. – Under which section of the India Evidence Act:
Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with:
Section 113 (A) of the Evidence Act deals with:
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the concept of:
Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under:
The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of:
"From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C., it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190(1) Cr.P.C.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence.... In other words, the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.P.C." - This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of:
Which provision under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?
Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section —– of Cr.P.C.
Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section ——- of Cr.P.C.
Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C. deals with:
Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation – is dealt under:
Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C., the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except:
Law of Contract
X, Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently X, Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay?
Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as:
According to the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be:
Indemnity contract is defined under:
Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to:
The definition of Contract is defined under:
Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as:
Agreement is:
Minimum number of Directors in a Public company:
An associate company, in relation to another company, means:
According to Income Tax Act "zero coupon bond" means a bond:
The national consumer dispute redressal commission was constituted in the year:
Specific Relief Act
Section 14A inserted by THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to:
Constitutional Law of India
Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under ———- of the Constitution
The Supreme Court invoked the principle of 'Transformative Constitutionalism' in the case of:
Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union Of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ:
Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be....
The utility of Public Interest Litigation:
The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the state of Bihar in promulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public has 'sufficient interest' to maintain a petition under Article 32 – This relates to the case of:
Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate class of persons, in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons." – Justice Bhagwati in the case of
The definition of 'money' under GST law does not include:
Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by:
India, that is Bharat, shall be:
The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of:
Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about:
Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the election flow from:
In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression 'liberty' is followed by the words:
Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by:
A.K. Kraipak Vs Union of India relates to:
Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of:
Professional Ethics & Cases
The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under:
According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the Bar Council of India has power to make rules:
Among other things, the Function of Bar Council of India includes laying down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. – Under which section of the Advocates Act:
According to Justice 'Abbot Parry' what are the "Seven Lamps of Advocacy":
Family Law I (Hindu Law)
Requisites of a valid adoption: No adoption shall be valid unless - (i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption; (ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so; (iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter. This is mentioned under:
The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005 provides for women:
Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides for:
A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband for many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under:
On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for:
Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to:
A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncle's son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC)
Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt under:
Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant?
"Decree-holder" means:
Suits by indigent persons is dealt under:
Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil Procedure is dealt under:
An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code 1908 as per order XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor – is known as:
Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with:
The principle of Res Judicata is dealt under Section —- of CPC:
Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with:
A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A:
Environmental Law
According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, 'environmental pollutant' means:
National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its jurisdiction with reference to:
M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India 1986 Shriram Food and Fertilisers case relates to:
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by:
Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under:
A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is:
A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z's handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search – A has committed an offence under:
In which of the following cases the offence of sedition was in issue:
Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. – Is an offence under:
Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of:
R. V. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that:
Law of Torts
In M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case) the court held that:
According to the Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means:
In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the committal of a wrongful act, are known as:
Land Acquisition Act
Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression "land" includes:
Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference as to compensation exists is provided under:
Legal Maxims
Vis major means:
Limitation Act
What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act, 1986?