AIBE 2018 Previous Year Questions

All 100 questions from AIBE 2018 (All India Bar Examination). Questions are available free. Login to see official answers and detailed explanations.

Constitutional Law of India

Q1

The First constitutional amendment was enacted in / पहला संवैधानिक संशोधन कब अधिनियमित किया गया?

a.1950
b.1951
c.1967
d.1975
Q3

A land mark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency, that is / एक ऐतिहासिक निर्णय जो हैबस कार्पस याचिका के अंतर्गत, आपातकाल के दौरान दायर की गई थी वह है

a.Keshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala / केशवानन्द भारती बनाम केरल राज्य
b.Golaknath V.s State of Punjab / गोलकनाथ बनाम पंजाब राज्य
c.MC Mehta V/s. Union of India / एमसी मेहता बनाम भारत संघ
d.ADM Jabalpur V/s. Shivkant Shukla / एडीएम जबलपुर बनाम शिवकांत शुक्ला
Q7

A trade mark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of / एक व्यापार चिह्न एक दृश्य प्रतीक होता है जो वाणिज्य से जुड़े अन्य वस्तुओं से अलग करने के लिए एक दृश्य के साथ लागू होता है। यह किस तरह का है

a.A word / एक शब्द
b.A device / एक यंत्र
c.A label / एक लेबल
d.All the above / उपरोक्त सभी
Q10

Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court / पीआईएल को उच्च न्यायालय और उच्चतम न्यायालय में कौन ले जा सकता है

a.Any public spirited person / कोई भी जनभावना वाला व्यक्ति
b.NGO or Association with public spirit / गैर सरकारी संस्था या जनभावना वाले मंच के प्रहयोग से
c.Group of Public spirited persons who have no personal interest / जनभावना वाले व्यक्तियों का समूह जिन का कोई निजी लाभ ना हो
d.All the above / उपरोक्त सभी
Q11

Doctrine of 'Pleasure' applies to / "प्रसन्नता" का सिद्धांत किस पर लागू होता है

a.Legislative / विधिकारी
b.Civil servants / जनसेवक
c.Judges / न्यायाधीश
d.Cabinet Ministers / कैबिनेट मंत्री
Q14

Article 361 provides / अनुच्छेद 361 प्रदान करता है

a.Authority to Union government to dismiss the state governments / केंद्र सरकार को राज्य सरकारों को खारिज करने का अधिकार
b.Authority to the state governments to pass legislation / राज्य सरकारों को कानून पारित करने का अधिकार
c.Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in courts / न्यायालयों में मुकदमा चलाने से राष्ट्रपति और गवर्नरों का संरक्षण और उन्मूलन
d.None of the above / इनमे से कोई नहीं
Q22

Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under / स्थायी खाता संख्या (पैन) को किसके तहत नीचे परिभाषित किया गया है

a.Wealth Tax / धन कर
b.GST / जीएसटी
c.Income Tax Act 1961 / आयकर अधिनियम 1961
d.Finance Act 1992 / वित्त अधिनियम 1992
Q26

Supreme Court decided in SR Bommai V/s. Union of India / उच्चतम न्यायालय ने एसआर बोम्मई बनाम भारत संघ में फैसला लिया

a.Relating to the President Rule in state / राज्य में राष्ट्रपति शासन से सम्बंधित
b.Relating to the illegal detention / अवैध नजरबंदी से सम्बंधित
c.Relating to the right to clean environment / पर्यावरण को साफ करने के अधिकार से सम्बंधित
d.None of the above / इनमे से कोई नही
Q28

Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act deals with / संपति कर अधिनियम की धारा 29 के द्वारा

a.Revision petition in division bench of High Court / उच्च न्यायालय की खंडपीठ में संशोधन याचिका की जाती है
b.Appeal in Supreme Court / सुप्रीम कोर्ट में अपील की जाती है
c.Return of Wealth Tax / धन कर की वापसी की जाती है
d.None of the above / इनमे से कोई भी नहीं
Q32

Supreme court has decided in Keshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala, that / उच्चतम न्यायालय ने केशवानंद भारती बनाम केरल राज्य में फैसला लिया है कि

a.Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution / संसद संविधान के किसी भी प्रावधुम में संशोधन कर सकता है
b.Parliament cannot amend any provision of the constitution / संसद संविधान के किसी भी प्रावधान में संशोधन नहीं कर सकता है
c.Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution / संसद संविधान के किसी भी प्रावधान में संशोधन कर सकती है लेकिन संविधान की बुनियादी संरचना और मूलभूत विशेता को बदल नहीं सकती है
d.None of the above / इनमे से कोई नही
Q35

Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v/s. Union Of India (1995) 1 SC 14, In this PIL which issue was exposed before the court / दिल्ली घरेलू कार्य महिला फोरम बनाम यूनियन ऑफ़ इंडिया (1995) 1 SC 14, इस जनहित याचिका मे अदालत के सामने क्या मामला आया था

a.The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men / कुछ घरेलू नौकरानियों की दुर्दशा जिन पर सेना के पुरुषों द्वारा यौन उत्पीड़न किया गया था
b.Abolition of child labour / बाल श्रम का उन्मूलन
c.Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi / दिल्ली में घरेलू नौकरों की बेरोजगारी
d.Poor salary of maid servants / दास नौकरों के खराब वेतन दिया गया
Q40

Which is not the Private Right

a.Rights of property
b.Right of freedom
c.Rights to Education
d.All the above
Q45

Separation of judiciary from Executive is guaranteed in constitution under Article

a.19
b.21
c.48-A
d.50
Q49

Which one is a case of public interest

a.Vishaka V/s State of Rajasthan
b.Minerva Mills V/s. Union of India AIR 1980
c.Municipal Council, Ratlam V.s. Vardichand AIR 1980
d.All the above
Q51

Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when

a.When the state legislature is not in session
b.During the course of legislature session
c.On the recommendation of the state cabinet
d.With the permission of the union government
Q56

Financial Relations between the state and centre are defined in constitution

a.Between Article 245-255
b.Between Article 256-263
c.Between Article 264 to 293
d.None of the above
Q63

"Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law". In which case supreme court made this remark

a.A.K. Gopalan V/s. State of Madras
b.M.C. Mehta V/s. Union of India
c.D.K. Basu V/s. State of Bengal
d.Visakha V/s. State of Rajasthan
Q75

Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?

a.It is a true law
b.It has vertical structure
c.It has well established institutes of governance
d.It has formal law enforcing agencies
Q81

Control over sub ordinate courts shall be vested in the

a.High Court
b.Supreme Court
c.Chief Minister
d.Governor
Q92

Droite Administration is a system of administration

a.French system
b.British system
c.American System
d.Irish System
Q100

GST came into force from

a.1st January 2017
b.1st April 2017
c.1st July 2017
d.1st August 2017

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)

Q2

A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts / किसी व्यक्ति को अपराध या अवैध कार्य या चूक करने के लिए उकसाता है तो उसपर निम्नलिखित धारा लग सकती है

a.Section 107 IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 107
b.Section 120(B) of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 120 (बी)
c.Section 114 of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 114
d.Section 144 of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 144
Q15

Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with / धार्मिक भावनाओं को आहत करने के लिए जानबूझकर इरादे से शब्दों के बोले जाने के साथ किस धारा के अंतर्गत निपटा जाएगा

a.Section 298 of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 298
b.Section 296 IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 296
c.Section 297 / धारा 297
d.None of the above / इनमे से कोई भी नही
Q34

"A" is at work with a hatchet: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained in / "A" एक कुल्हाड़ी से काम कर रहा था: कुल्हाड़ी का सिर उड़ता जाता है और पास में खड़े एक आदमी कि जान चली जाती है। अगर "A" के हिस्से में उचित सावधानी बरती नहीं जाती है, तो उसकी कार्य माफी के योग्य है। अपराध नहीं हैं। किस धारा मे निहित है

a.Section 80 of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 80
b.Section 84 of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 84
c.Section 81 of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 81
d.Section 85 of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 85
Q57

Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad u/s 124(A) of IPC for

a.Calling Hartal
b.Breaching public peace and tranquillity
c.Sedition and disaffection to the government
d.None of the above
Q80

Abetting the Commission of suicide is given under

a.Section 9 of IPC
b.Section 8 of IPC
c.Section 7 of IPC
d.None of the above
Q87

"A" finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs to "B" and appropriates to his own use. "A" is guilty of

a.Criminal breach of trust
b.Cheating
c.Criminal misappropriation
d.Theft

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)

Q4

Examination in Chief is conducted by the / मुख्य तहकीकात किस के द्वारा की जाती है

a.Chief Examiner of the court / न्यायालय का मुख्य परीक्षक
b.A lawyer appointed by the accused / दोषी द्वारा नियुक्त अधिवक्ता
c.A lawyer appointed by the government / सरकार द्वारा नियुक्त अधिवक्ता
d.Presiding judge in the court / न्यायालय के संभापति न्यायाधीश द्वारा
Q25

Who is prevented from being testified u/s 118 of Indian Evidence Act / भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम के अनुभाग 118 के तहत किस को परिणाम प्रस्तुत करने पर रोक है

a.A lunatic who cannot understand the questions put to him / एक पागल जो उससे किये गये सवाल को नहीं समझ सकता
b.Extreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions / बहुत वृद्ध व्यक्ति जो प्रश्नों का विवेकपूर्ण उत्तर नहीं दे सकता
c.A tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions / एक विनम्र आयु व्यक्ति प्रश्नों का विवेकपूर्ण उत्तर नहीं दे सकता
d.All the above / उपरोक्त सभी
Q31

Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is / दोषी द्वारा मजिस्ट्रेट को दिया गया बयान है

a.Admissible / स्वीकार्य
b.Not admissible / स्वीकार्य नहीं
c.Challengeable / चुनौती देने योग्य
d.None of the above / उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं
Q42

The Kashmira Singh Vs. State of Punjab is a leading case on

a.Dying Declaration
b.Admission
c.Confession
d.None of the above
Q54

In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on

a.The Petitioner
b.The respondents
c.The state government
d.The Court
Q77

Dying declaration must be made by

a.The dying person in hospital
b.The doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
c.The deceased before death
d.Nearest relative of the deceased
Q83

Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called

a.Coercive question
b.Confusing question
c.Misleading question
d.Rhetoric Question
Q90

Indian Evidence Act was enacted in

a.1972/1972
b.1872/1872
c.1955/1955
d.1986/1986

Environmental Law

Q5

The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of / जलवायु परिवर्तन पर सम्मेलन किसका परिणाम था

a.The Stockholm Conference / स्टोकहोम कांफ्रेंस
b.The Nairobi Conference / नैरोबी कांफ्रेंस
c.The Vienna Conference / वियाना कांफ्रेंस
d.The Rio De Janeiro Conference / द रियो डि जेनेरियो कांफ्रेंस
Q97

The Costal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in

a.1986/1986
b.1988/1988
c.1991/1991
d.1997/1997

Labour & Industrial Laws

Q6

Who is a protected workman / सुरक्षित श्रमिक कौन है

a.Workman given police protection during labour strike / श्रमिक, जिसे श्रमिक हड़ताल के दौरान पुलिस सुरक्षा मिली हो
b.Workman protected by insurance coverage / बीमा कवरेज से सुरक्षित श्रमिक
c.Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment / वह श्रमिक, जो र्थापति में किसी पंजीकृत व्यापार संघ का अधिकासरी या पदाधिकारी है
d.Workman protected from being arrested by a court order / न्यायालय के आदेश द्वारा गिरफ्तारी से बचा हुआ श्रमिक
Q60

Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is

a.Dispute between employers and employers
b.Dispute between employers and workman
c.Dispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non-employment
d.All the above
Q73

State government's power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicle Act 1988 Under section

a.67 of MV Act 1988
b.68 of MV Act 1988
c.69 of MV Act 1988
d.None of the above
Q85

Section 49 of Factories Act 1947 explains about

a.Canteen
b.Creche
c.Welfare officer
d.Rest room
Q96

Unfair labour practice by the employers is

a.Victimization
b.False implication in criminal case
c.Untrue allegations of absence without leave
d.All the above

Professional Ethics & Cases

Q8

The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of alternate dispute resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of / भारतीय कानूनी प्रणाली ने वैकल्पिक विवाद समाधान की एक नई तकनीक विकसित की है जिसे लोकप्रिय रूप से लोक अदालत के नाम से जाना जाता है। इसकि सनवधिनिक मान्यता की नींव के लिए कोन सा अधिनियम ज़िम्मेदार है

a.Legal Service Corporation Act, 1974 / कानूनी सेवा निगम अधिनियम, 1974
b.Legal aid and advice Act, 1949 / कानूनी सहायता और सलाह अधिनियम, 1949
c.Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 / कानूनी सेवा प्राधिकरण अधिनियम, 1987
d.None / कोई नहीं
Q12

Section 24 A of Advocates Act 1961 provides the / अधिवक्ता अधिनियम 1961 की धारा 24 ए क्या प्रदान करती है

a.Appointment of Attorney General / महान्यायवादी की नियुक्ति
b.Regular attendance at Law College / लॉ कॉलेज में नियमित उपस्थिति
c.Admitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll / बार या राज्य रोल में नामांकन के लिए स्वीकृत
d.Election to state Bar Council / राज्य बार संघ में चुनाव
Q48

Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act 1961 by

a.Section 25
b.Section 33
c.Section 35
d.None of the above
Q69

Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct

a.Ethics Committee
b.Professional Development Committee
c.Disciplinary Committee
d.High Court
Q91

Which is the correct state statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer

a.Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott
b.An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
c.An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
d.All of the above

Law of Contract

Q9

Shah Bano case was related to / शाह बानो मामला किस से संबंधित था

a.Dowry demand / दहेज की मांग
b.Harassment at work place / कार्य स्थल पर उत्पीड़न
c.Maintenance of divorced Muslim women / तलाकशुदा मुस्लिम औरतों का रखरखाव
d.Triple divorce of Muslim Women / मुस्लिम औरतों का तिहरा तलाक
Q13

Articles of a company can be altered by / कंपनी के अंतर्नियमों को कौन बदल सकता है

a.The directors of the company / कंपनी के संचालक
b.The official of the company / कंपनी के अधिकारी
c.Share holders by passing an ordinary resolution / शेयर धारक, एक सामान्य प्रस्ताव पारित करके
d.Share holders by passing a special resolution / शेयर धारक, एक विशेष प्रस्ताव पारित करके
Q18

Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor / इनमे से कौन एक नाबालिक मुस्लिम की सम्पति का कानूनी अभिभावक नहीं है

a.Father / पिता
b.Brother / भाई
c.The executor appointed by father / पिता द्वारा नियुक्त निर्वाहक
d.Grand father / दादा
Q23

A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is / अपनी इददत पूरा होने में पहले एक महिला के साथ शादी ________ है

a.Irregular / अनियमित
b.Void / परभावहिन
c.Voidable / अमान्य करणीय
d.None of these / इनमे से कोई नहीं
Q38

Definition of complainant is described in Consumer Protection Act under section

a.Section 2(1)(b)
b.Section 20
c.Section 21
d.None of the above
Q43

What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act

a.Recovery of stolen property
b.Recovery of seized vehicles from RTO
c.Recovery of the cheque amount incase cheque issued by the payer is bounced
d.None of the above
Q53

Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance

a.Son who is a minor
b.Daughter who is not married
c.Grand parents
d.An Illegitimate son
Q62

Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale

a.The parties must be competent to contract
b.There must be mental consent
c.There must be a transfer of property
d.There must be an agreement to sell
Q70

Which section of Sale of Goods Act 1930 deal with anticipatory breach of contract

a.Section 50
b.Section 65
c.Section 60
d.Section 70
Q76

Deferred mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse

a.This statement is true under Sunni law
b.This statement is not true
c.Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce
d.Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse
Q99

Under the Companies Act every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least

a.100 shares
b.20 shares
c.10 shares
d.1 share

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)

Q16

Under Section 320(1), Cr.P.C for criminal intimidation, with section of IPC is applicable / सीआरपीसी की धारा 320 (1) के तहत, आपराधिक धमकी के लिए, आईपीसी का कौन सा अनुभाग लागू है

a.503
b.504
c.505
d.506
Q33

Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused without warrant? / आपराधिक प्रक्रिया संहिता के निम्नलिखित खंडों में कौन से खंड के अनतर्गत पुलिस वारंट के बिना अभियुक्त को गिरफ्तार कर सकती है?

a.Section 40 / धारा 40
b.Section 41 / धारा 41
c.Section 42 / धारा 42
d.Section 37 / धारा 37
Q37

The FIR gives information of / एफआईआर क्या जानकारी देती है

a.Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a police officer / एक पुलिस अधिकारी द्वारा की गई जांच के बारे में मजिस्ट्रेट को रिपोर्ट
b.Report submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal case / एक आपराधिक मामले में जांच अधिकारी द्वारा अदालत में पेश की गई रिपोर्ट
c.The commission of a cognizable crime / एक संज्ञेय अपराध का आयोग
d.None of the above / उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं
Q41

Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61 Cr.P.C?

a.It is milder form of process
b.It is for appearance
c.It is for producing documents or thing
d.All of them
Q46

In-camera trial is conducted in the cases charged under section

a.302 IPC
b.307 IPC
c.376 IPC
d.498-A-IPC
Q50

Under section 239 Cr.PC, the Magistrate can

a.Frame charges against the accused person
b.Discharge the accused if charges are groundless
c.Open trial for evidence
d.Convict the accused if pleaded guilty
Q52

A person arrested should not be detained more than

a.48 hours
b.24 hours
c.14 days
d.90 days
Q55

In which of the following of Section 59 Cr.P.C the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place?

a.On his own bond
b.On bail
c.Under special order of the Magistrate
d.All of them
Q58

Police can seek a bond for good behaviour u/s. 109 and 110 of Cr.PC from

a.Habitual offenders
b.White collar criminals
c.Jail inmates
d.None of the above
Q66

What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR

a.Within 24 hours
b.Within 48 hours
c.Within 14 days of the offence
d.No time limit is specified
Q79

Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution

a.Section 242 Cr.P.C
b.Section 264 Cr.P.C
c.Section 237 Cr.P.C
d.Section 235 Cr.P.C

Arbitration & ADR

Q17

Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism / इनमें से कौन सा वैकल्पिक विवाद समाधान तंत्र का एक नवीनतम रूप है

a.Bar Council of India / भारतीय बार परिषद
b.Election Commission / निर्वाचन आयोग
c.Comptroller and Auditor General / नियंत्रक और महालेखा परीक्षक
d.Lok Adalat / लोक अदालत
Q44

Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes

a.Process of Conciliation
b.Process of Arbitration
c.Enforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
d.All of the above

Code of Civil Procedure (CPC)

Q19

Who is garnishee / गार्निशी कौन है

a.A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim / एक तीसरी पार्टी जिसे ऋण या दावे को सुलझाने के लिए धन आत्मसमर्पण करने के लिए कानूनी नोटिस के माध्यम से निर्देशित किया जाता है
b.A borrower arrested for defaulting / चूक के लिए गिरफ्तार एक उधारकर्ता
c.A person who cannot repay a bank loan / एक व्यक्ति जो एक बैंक ऋण नहीं चुका सकता
d.A person who mortgaged his farm land / जो व्यक्ति अपने खेत की भूमि को गिरवी रखता है
Q24

Section 10 of the CPC provides for / सीपीसी की धारा 10 क्या प्रदान करती है

a.Stay of the suit / वाद का रहना
b.Summoning witness / गवाह को बुलाना
c.Examination of witness / गवाह की परीक्षा
d.Sentencing the judgement / फैसला सुनाना
Q30

Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgements, decrees or orders etc. can be corrected / निर्णय, नियम या आदेश आदि में लिपिक या अंकगणितीय गलतियों को सही किया जा सकता है

a.Under Section 151 of CPC / सीपीसी की धारा 151 के तहत
b.Under Section 152 of CPC / सीपीसी की धारा 152 के तहत
c.Under Section 153 of CPC / सीपीसी की धारा 153 के तहत
d.Under Section 153 A of CPC / सीपीसी की धारा 153 ए के तहत
Q39

Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader-suits in the code of civil procedure?

a.Order 12, Rule 1
b.Order 17, Rule 10
c.Order 33, Rule 18
d.Order 35 Rule 1
Q67

Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?

a.They are a special law within Section 4 of the code of civil procedure
b.They must take precedence over Section 114 or Order 47
c.Both (A) and (B)
d.None of these
Q68

An Appeal Against Order Passed under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in

a.The High Court
b.The Supreme Court
c.The Central Government
d.Not Appealable
Q78

Judgement should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open court

a.By delivering the whole of the judgement
b.By reading out the whole of the judgement
c.By reading out the operative part of the judgement
d.All of the above
Q82

Section 34 of the CPC provides

a.The Payment of fine imposed by the court
b.Payment of compensation to the other party
c.Payment of interest
d.None of the above
Q84

According to clauses (i),(ii) and (iii) of section 145 of the code of civil Procedure a surety

a.May render himself personally liable
b.He may only give a change upon his property
c.He may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
d.All of these
Q86

The word "case" used in Section 115 of the code of civil Procedure is of wide import and

a.It means any state of facts juridically considered
b.It includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in a civil court
c.Both (A) and (B)
d.None of these
Q88

The word "is not possessed of sufficient means" in Order 33 Rule 1 refer to

a.To dower debt due by the petitioner's husband
b.To property over which petitioner has actual control
c.To sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
d.None of these
Q89

Section 22 B of Legal Services Authority Act empower the central and state Authorities to

a.Abolish Lok Adalat
b.Works of Lok Adalat
c.Powers of Lok Adalat or permanent Lok Adalat
d.None of the above

Land Acquisition Act

Q20

Under section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894; which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to the court / भूमि अधिग्रहण अधिनियम, 1894 की धारा 18 के तहत, निम्नलिखित अधिकारियों में से किसे अदालत में मामले को संदर्भित करने का अधिकार है

a.The Tahsildar / तहसीलदार
b.The Sub Collector / उप कलेक्टर
c.The Deputy Collector / डिप्टी कलेक्टर
d.The Collector / कलेक्टर
Q29

The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act 1894, give immediate ____________ of any correction made in the award to all the persons included / जिलाधिकारी, भूमि अधिग्रहण अधिनियम 1894 के तहत, इस अधिनिर्णय में किए गए सभी सुधारों में शामिल सभी व्यक्तियों को तत्काल ____________ प्रदान करेगा

a.Approval / स्वीकृति
b.Stay / रोक
c.Announcement / घोषणा
d.Notice / सूचना

Specific Relief Act

Q21

For Specific Performance of a contract suit is to be instituted in / एक अनुबंद बाद के विशिष्ट प्रदर्शन के लिए कितने समय में स्थापित किया जाना है

a.3 years / 3 वर्ष
b.3 months / 3 महीने
c.6 months / 6 महीने
d.No specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract / अनुबंध में उलेखित जब तक कोई विशिष्ठ समय सीमा नही
Q27

Recovery of specific immovable property is defined / विशिष्ट अचल संपति की पुनः प्राप्ति परिभाषित है

a.Section of 5 of Specific Relief Act / विशिष्ट राहत अधिनियम की धारा 5
b.Section 120 (B) of IPC / आईपीसी की धारा 120(बी)
c.Under section 10 of Sale of goods Act / वस्तु विक्री अधिनियम की धारा 10 के तहत
d.None of the Above / उपरोक्त में से कोई नही
Q95

Cancellation of instrument is mentioned in

a.Section 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
b.Section of 26 of Specific Relief Act
c.Section 31-33 of specific Relief Act
d.Sections 36-42 of Specific Relief Act

Cyber Law (IT Act)

Q36

Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature / साइबर कानून का कौन सा अध्याय डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर के लिए कानूनी मान्यता प्रदान करता है

a.Chapter III / अध्याय III
b.Chapter IV / अध्याय IV
c.Chapter IX / अध्याय IX
d.Chapter IX and X / अध्याय IX और X
Q71

Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright act by invoking the provisions

a.Section 13-16
b.Section 17-27
c.Section 63-70
d.None of the above
Q93

Which Act is covering the Cyber crimes

a.Indian Telecommunication Act
b.Indian Penal Code
c.Indian Evidence Act
d.Information Technology Act

Family Law I (Hindu Law)

Q47

The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act: In which case the order was passed:

a.Handa v/s. Handa (AIR 1955)
b.Dr. Mary V/s. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
c.Peter V/s. Anglina (AIR 1992)
d.None of the above
Q59

Dayabhaga school Presumes that "a family because it is joint possesses joint property"

a.This statement is correct
b.This presumption is under Mitakshara school
c.This statement is incorrect
d.None of these
Q98

Who is lawful guardian according to law

a.A person who in law represents the Minor
b.A person who has been appointed by the court
c.A person who has been authorised to represent an unmarried daughter
d.All the above

Law of Torts

Q61

English case Ryland V/s. Fletcher laid down a very important rule

a.Absolute Liability
b.Vicarious liability
c.Indirect liability
d.Financial liability
Q94

In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to

a.Violate legal right of the victim
b.Cause damage to the victim
c.Obtain benefit for the combiners
d.Perfect the interest of combiners

Limitation Act

Q64

A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is

a.3 years from the date of sentencing the judgement
b.3 years from the date of release from imprisonment
c.3 years from the date of commencing the imprisonment
d.1 year when the imprisonment ends

Legal Maxims

Q65

Rule of Law is defined by

a.Jeremy Bentham
b.Sir John Salmond
c.A.Y. Diecy
d.Prof. Aristotle

TPA

Q72

Which section of Indian Registration Act 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties

a.Section 11
b.Section 13
c.Section 17
d.None of the above
Q74

Doctrine of "LIS PENDENS" is given under which section of the transfer of property Act

a.41/41
b.52/52
c.53/53
d.53A/53A

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