AIBE 2016 Previous Year Questions
All 100 questions from AIBE 2016 (All India Bar Examination). Questions are available free. Login to see official answers and detailed explanations.
Constitutional Law of India
State practice for the formation of customary rule includes 1. State actions 2. State claims
Directive Principles are:
Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of Bill for such purpose in:
International law is a weak law because:
Which of the following territories have been declared as Common Heritage of Mankind Territories? (1) Moon (2) High seas (3) Deep sea bed (4) Antarctica
Which of the following is not the objective of the United Nations?
Which of the following is true in respect of a Government contract which does not conform to provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution?
Which of the following are included in the concept of "State" under Article 12?
The word procedure established by law in Article 21 means:
In cases in which a specific act confers a discretionary power on an authority:
Cyber Law (IT Act)
The Controller of Certifying Authorities in India must maintain a database of the disclosure records of: 1. Certifying Authority 2. Cross Certifying Authority 3. Foreign Certifying Authority
Under section 37 of the I T Act, 2000, the certifying authority can suspend the digital signature certificate if: 1. The subscriber is found guilty of malpractice 2. The subscriber is involved in cyber terrorism 3. The subscriber requests for the same 4. In public interest
In the cases before Cyber Appellate Tribunal, the appellant:
In India which of the following authorities has the power to block websites?
Which among the following is authorized under the Information Technology Act, 2000 to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of Sections 14 and 15 of the Act?
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
In the light of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013, which of the following statement is/are correct?
The offence of stalking upon second or subsequent conviction is:
In kidnapping, the consent of minor is:
The committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013 was headed by:
The right to private defence is:
To establish Section 34:
Labour & Industrial Laws
Under the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, any person who has attained the age of . . . . . . may be a member of a registered Trade Union subject to any rules of the Trade Union to the contrary.
Spurious goods under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 imply:
Who is liable to pay compensation in case of death or permanent disablement?
The provisions of . . . . . . . . . . . . . do not apply to trade unions registered under the provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926.
Which of the following can be considered retrenchment under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Which of the following statement holds true regarding imprisonment under the provisions of Section 14(3) of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986?
Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the appropriate government may by order in writing:
Which of the following statement is true for loss of confidence by management in the workman?
Under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the period of limitation for filing complaint before the National Commission is:
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
Indian Evidence Act applies to:
Fact in issue means:
The question whether a statement was recorded in the course of investigation is a:
Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence is applicable when the maker of a statement:
Secondary evidence of a document means:
A Will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness:
Any person in Section 106 of the Evidence Act refers to:
A retracted confession:
A confession to be inadmissible under Section 25 of the Evidence Act:
An unjustified and unexplained long delay on the part of the investigating officer in recording the statement of a material witness would render the evidence of such witness:
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
In a bailable offence, bail is granted as a matter of right:
A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance:
Where the police submits a final report under Section 173(2) of CrPC for dropping of proceedings to a magistrate, the Magistrate:
The orders under Section 125 of CrPC are:
In a cognizable case under IPC, police have the:
During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by:
Committal proceedings under Section 209 of CrPC are in the nature of:
Recording of pre-summoning evidence may be dispensed with under Section 200 of CrPC:
Arbitration & ADR
The conciliation proceedings:
Which is an incorrect statement?
Which of the following statements hold true for adjudicatory bodies?
The present Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on:
The provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by the principles underlying the 1940 Act. This observation was laid down in:
Professional Ethics & Cases
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):
State Bar Council under the provisions of Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 has the authority to:
Which of the following is untrue regarding qualification for a person to be admitted on the state rolls maintained by State Bar Councils?
How is the net worth of a foreign Company calculated for the purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility?
Which of the following actions can be taken by a Registrar under Section 4(5) of the Companies Act, 2013?
Which of the following Companies will have to constitute Corporate Social Responsibility Committee under the Companies Act, 2013?
The Bar Council of India Rule which stipulated that persons aged 45 years and above could not be enrolled as advocates was struck down by the Supreme Court in:
The Supreme Court held in V.C. Rangadurai v. D. Gopalan that an advocate who has been disbarred or suspended must prove after a reasonable length of time that:
Who among the following is authorized to issue regulations regarding shelf prospectus?
Which of the following services cannot be provided to the Company by an auditor appointed under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013?
Environmental Law
Which of the following is a function of Central Pollution Control Board under the provisions of Section 16 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?
The destruction of fish by use of explosive or by poisoning the water is prohibited by:
Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle as given under the Indian Forest Act, 1927?
Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, any person who teases an animal in a zoo may be punished:
The entry on forests and protection of wild animals and birds was moved from _____ to the _____ by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC)
Section 10 of CPC does not apply:
Principle of Res judicata is:
Objection as to non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties under Order 1, Rule 13 of CPC:
Objection as to the place of suing:
On the retirement, removal or death of a next friend, under Order XXXII, Rule 10 of CPC, the suit is liable to be:
Where co-judgment debtors are in the position of joint promisors, each is:
Specific Relief Act
What is true of perpetual injunction?
A suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be brought by:
Injunction cannot be granted in a suit:
Legal Maxims
According to Salmond every legal right:
The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by:
According to one of the theories of punishment, evil should be returned by evil. This theory is called the:
Droit des Gens (Law of Nations) 1758 was written by:
Limitation Act
Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of:
Section 5 of the Limitation Act applies to:
Law of Contract
If an instrument may be construed either as promissory note or bill of exchange, it is:
A contingent contract based on the specified uncertain events not happening within a fixed time under Section 35:
Which is correct?
Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer:
In cases of general offer, for a valid contract:
At sight under Section 21 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 means:
Contract without consideration made in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection is:
Family Law I (Hindu Law)
Onus to prove reasonable excuse for withdrawal from the Society of the other is on:
A disqualified person/heir:
Law of Torts
The essential ingredient of the tort of negligence are - (1) When one owes a duty of care towards the other. (2) When one commits a breach of that duty and (3) The other person suffers damage as a consequence thereof - Choose correct response for below
Vicarious liability includes:
Grievous hurt under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 means:
TPA
Under the provision of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit:
Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be voidable:
Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
Where a debt is transferred for the purpose of securing an existing or future debt, the debt so transferred, if received by the transferor or recovered by the transferee, is applicable first in payment of cost of such recovery. This is the provision of: